Flight Paramedic (FP-C)
Flight Paramedic (FP-C) is a trademark of its owner, which is not affiliated with and does not endorse Test Treasure Publication or TTP Prep.
Flight Paramedic (FP-C) is a trademark of its owner, which is not affiliated with and does not endorse Test Treasure Publication or TTP Prep.
10 sample questions for the Flight Paramedic (FP-C), with the correct answer and an explanation for each. No account needed. Try each one before you open the answer.
Sections covered on the exam: Airway, Anesthesia, and Analgesics, Safety and Transport, Flight Physiology, Medical Emergencies, Neurological, Cardiac, Trauma / Burns, Maternal, Fetal, and Neonatal, Pediatric, Professional Considerations.
Question 1 · Airway, Anesthesia, and Analgesics
Before an interfacility transfer, you check a portable E cylinder (cylinder factor 0.28 L/psi) that reads 1,800 psi. The patient needs a non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min, and your program requires a 200 psi safe residual. About how long will this cylinder last?
Answer: A. About 30 minutes
Duration = (gauge pressure minus safe residual) x cylinder factor / flow = (1,800 - 200) x 0.28 / 15 = 448 / 15, or about 30 minutes. The 34-minute figure comes from leaving out the 200 psi safe residual, which overstates the oxygen you can actually use.
Question 2 · Airway, Anesthesia, and Analgesics
A septic patient needs intubation. Vitals: HR 128, BP 78/44, SpO2 92% on high-flow oxygen. A peripheral norepinephrine infusion is ready. What is the MOST appropriate priority before induction?
Answer: D. Start fluid and pressor resuscitation to restore perfusion before induction
Peri-intubation hypotension is a leading cause of arrest; induction agents and the switch to positive pressure both reduce preload and sympathetic tone. Resuscitating first with fluids, pressors, or push- dose epinephrine, and using a reduced-dose, hemodynamically stable agent, lowers that risk. Etomidate is not truly hemodynamically neutral in shock, and paralysis without sedation leads to awareness.
Question 3 · Medical Emergencies
A patient taking metoprolol has anaphylaxis after a bee sting. After IM epinephrine 0.5 mg twice, an epinephrine infusion, and 2 L of crystalloid, BP is 74/40 and HR 58. What is the MOST appropriate next medication?
Answer: B. Glucagon 1 to 5 mg IV over 5 minutes, then an infusion
Beta-blockade blunts the response to epinephrine; glucagon raises intracellular cAMP independent of beta-receptors and improves inotropy and chronotropy. Antihistamines and corticosteroids are adjuncts that do not acutely reverse refractory shock.
Question 4 · Cardiac
A patient with complete heart block is being paced transcutaneously at a rate of 70 and 60 mA. Pacing spikes are visible, but none is followed by a QRS complex. The underlying rate is 32 and BP is 70/40. What is the MOST appropriate action?
Answer: D. Increase the output until each spike produces a wide QRS
Spikes without a following QRS indicate failure to capture, corrected by raising the mA until consistent electrical capture appears, then setting output slightly above threshold. Mechanical capture is then confirmed with a femoral pulse, since skeletal muscle twitching can mimic a carotid pulse.
Question 5 · Maternal, Fetal, and Neonatal
Ten minutes after delivery, a patient has ongoing heavy bleeding with a boggy uterus despite fundal massage and an oxytocin infusion. She has severe preeclampsia (BP 166/108) and a history of asthma requiring intubation. Which additional uterotonic is MOST appropriate?
Answer: B. Misoprostol 800 mcg rectally
Methylergonovine causes vasoconstriction and is contraindicated in hypertension and preeclampsia, while carboprost (a prostaglandin F2- alpha) causes bronchospasm and is relatively contraindicated in asthma. Misoprostol, a prostaglandin E1 analog, has neither restriction. Terbutaline is a tocolytic that relaxes the uterus and would worsen hemorrhage.
Question 6 · Safety and Transport
During mission intake, the communications specialist starts telling the pilot about the patient's critical injuries before the weather and risk assessment are finished. Under widely accepted air medical safety practice, how should this be handled?
Answer: A. The pilot should decide go/no-go without knowing the patient's condition
Programs keep the pilot unaware of patient details during the flight- acceptance decision so that a sick patient does not create pressure to fly in unsafe conditions. Weather, aircraft, and crew factors alone decide the go/no-go call, and any crew member can turn down a flight. Weighing patient acuity against weather risk is exactly the bias this practice is meant to prevent.
Question 7 · Airway, Anesthesia, and Analgesics
A patient with severe DKA (pH 6.98, PaCO2 14 mmHg, RR 36) becomes obtunded and needs intubation. Which initial ventilator strategy is MOST appropriate?
Answer: A. Match his pre-intubation minute ventilation with a high rate
In severe metabolic acidosis, the patient's own hyperventilation is the main buffer, and dropping minute ventilation to a 'normal' setting lets PaCO2 rise, which can push the pH toward a lethal level and cause arrest. The rate (and tidal volume if allowed) should be set to match or exceed the pre-intubation minute ventilation, guided by EtCO2 and blood gases. A target EtCO2 of 40 mmHg would worsen the acidosis badly.
Question 8 · Medical Emergencies
An older patient who took a family member's glipizide has recurrent hypoglycemia despite three doses of D50 and a D10 infusion. What is the MOST appropriate next medication?
Answer: C. Octreotide 50 to 100 mcg IV or subcutaneously
Sulfonylureas stimulate insulin release, and each dextrose bolus provokes more insulin secretion; octreotide suppresses pancreatic insulin release and prevents rebound hypoglycemia. Glucagon also stimulates insulin release and is short-lived, and concentrated dextrose through a peripheral line risks phlebitis without fixing the cause.
Question 9 · Cardiac
A patient on femoral VA-ECMO has a right radial PaO2 of 48 mmHg and right hand SpO2 of 82%, while the post- oxygenator PaO2 is 420 mmHg and the legs are pink. What is the MOST appropriate initial action?
Answer: D. Raise ventilator FiO2 and PEEP to oxygenate native lung blood
This is differential hypoxia (harlequin syndrome): recovering native cardiac output ejects poorly oxygenated blood from the injured lungs into the aortic arch, perfusing the brain and right arm, while well- oxygenated circuit blood reaches only the lower body. Improving native lung oxygenation is the first step; sweep gas mainly controls CO2 removal and cannot fix blood that never passes through the oxygenator.
Question 10 · Maternal, Fetal, and Neonatal
One hour after a vaginal birth, a woman has lost an estimated 1,200 mL despite oxytocin, uterine massage, and misoprostol. BP is 88/54 and HR 124. Which statement about tranexamic acid is MOST accurate?
Answer: D. Give 1 g IV over 10 minutes, repeating once if bleeding persists
Based on the WOMAN trial, TXA 1 g IV over 10 minutes within 3 hours of birth reduces death from postpartum hemorrhage, with a second 1 g dose if bleeding continues after 30 minutes. The trial found no increase in thromboembolic events, and rapid push can cause hypotension. Benefit falls with every delay, so waiting for larger losses is inappropriate.
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